a question of law

this news story regarding the Michael Skakel murder case contains the following quote:

Hope Seeley, Skakel's attorney, said she will file a motion seeking to compel Bryant to testify.

"I think the fact that Mr. Bryant asserted his right against self incrimination was not surprising once he hired a criminal defense attorney in light of the fact that he placed himself at the crime scene the night of the murder holding a golf club around the time of the murder," Seeley said.

now, i'll admit i'm pretty vague on constitutional law, so i'll just ask the better-informed: wouldn't it be a violation of the 5th amendment to compel someone to testify after they've invoked it? not that i'm not in favor of nailing this guy if he lied about what happened and/or was an accessory, but, um... what am i missing? (i assume i'm missing something, since i usually am.)

oh, the embarrassment

i now have a music page on myspace.